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Directives Explained: Examine, Critically Examine, Analyse and Critically Analyse



We see lots of Directive words being given in UPSC Civil Services Mains General Studies and Optional question papers every year. For example, in last year’s (2013) General Studies Paper – 2, out of 25 questions, 23 questions had clear Directives ranging from ‘Discuss’ to ‘Elucidate’ ( Other Directives given – ‘Comment’,  ‘ Examine’, ‘Critically Examine’, ‘Analyse’, ‘Critically Evaluate’, ‘Assess’, ‘Outline’, ‘Justify’ and ‘Discuss Critically’.)

These directives are not randomly given. They serve a purpose. In every question, when they are given, they demand specific response from candidates.  In the above mentioned question pape r, every directive would have been just ‘Discuss’. But we see diverse directives including a directive that expects candidate to ‘Discuss Critically’ the given question.

What is a Directive?

It is an instruction that tells you what to do with content words given in the question. Directives are also called as Task Words. They ask you to follow a clear path throughout your answer/essay. You need to follow its instruction to make your answer relevant.

But, What are Content Words?

These words/phrases in the question tell you which ideas and concepts are required to be dealt with in your answer.These words guide you to establish the general focus of your answer. 

But only directives and content words do not sufficiently guide you to write a complete answer. There is something else – called as Limiting Words/phrases.

Limiting Words

These words/phrases limit the scope of your answer. You may be asked to comment on an event that took place only after certain year (For example, Comment on India’s defence policy since Kargil war). Here, the particular ‘year’ is the limiting word i.e. Year 1999. You should never write anything related to defence policy that is before 1999.

Even ‘word limit’ is part of this. Limiting words create a boundary lest you wander away from the demand of the question.

In this article, we will take up  Questions that appeared in 2013 Mains as an example and explain all the three Key words mentioned above. In this article, we will discuss only two key directives – Examine and Analyse – and their variants. 

The Question

The concept of Mid Day Meal (MDM) scheme is almost a century old in India with early beginnings in Madras Presidency in pre – Independent India. The scheme as again been given impetus in most states in the last two decades. Critically examine its twin objectives, latest mandates and success. (Question 8, General Studies-2, CSE-2013, 200 words) (Refer this link to frame your answer)

Key Words in the Question

Directive :.

In this question, the directive used is ‘ Critically Examine ‘. First we should know the clear meaning of ‘ examine ‘ and what does it direct us to do in our answer.

When asked to ‘Examine’, we have to look into the topic (content words) in detail, inspect it, investigate it and establish the key facts and issues related to the topic in question. While doing so we should explain why these facts and issues are important and their implications .

If in the above question, the directive was just ‘Examine’ and not ‘Critically Examine’, what difference would have it made?

The word ‘ Critically ‘ is usually added when the examiner clearly demands a fair judgement from you. You can not take a single stance, or be blind to other facts.

In the above question, the directive ‘Critically Examine’ is given because at the end of the question you are asked to examine its ‘ Success ‘ too. Someone might think that it is not good to write negative things about the Mid Day Meal scheme because UPSC likes only ‘positive’ answers and the question itself is asking to write about ‘success’ alone. It’s wrong. Here, you should talk about its shortcomings too. You can not just write a glowing tribute to the scheme and try to impress the examiner.

But, if the directive was just ‘Examine’, can we just mention only positive or negative facts?

No. You still have to balance your answer with fair judgement, but emphasis should be more on ‘establishing facts’ , not worrying much about good or bad about those facts.

In the same question paper ( Q 18, CSE-2013, GS-2 ), see this question:

“The proposed withdrawal of International Security Assistance Force (ISAF) from Afghanistan in 2014 is fraught with major security implications for the countries of the region. Examine in light of the fact that India is faced with a plethora of challenges and needs to safeguard its own strategic interests.”(200 Words)

In the above question you are just asked to establish facts and explain the implications. You don’t have to necessarily take both positions: i.e. the need for India to fill the vacuum once USA evacuates from Afghanistan or for it  to just stay away and focus on tightening its security apparatus at home. As it is clearly given in the question to support the directive that ‘…  in light of the fact that India is faced with a plethora of challenges and needs to safeguard its own strategic interests’,  you need to objectively establish facts here. If it was ‘Critically examine’, it was imperative for you to talk both about India’s involvement and non-involvement and their implications. But to this question you can safely answer that India’s non-involvement in the internal affairs of Afghanistan, or military adventurism, or getting entangled in regional geopolitics is good for its own security.

What if the directive was ‘Analyse’ in the question (on Mid Day meal scheme)?

When asked to analyse, we have to break the question into parts and carefully examine their details and interrelationships.  Analyse is digging deeper than examine but into every aspect of the question.

In the question on MDM, already various parts are given in the question itself. History of MDM, Twin Objective (Education and Health of children), latest mandates and success of the scheme. These are interrelated.  In the answer you should clearly talk about their interrelationship. When analysing twin objectives, you have to examine in detail educational and health aspects of the scheme – provisions, their impact, shortcomings etc.

It appears to be a challenge to think about directives in the exam hall and frame a coherent and relevant answer. But if you go there with sufficient practice, these things will be easy to manage even in the pressure situation of the exam. Though many toppers suggest that one should just go with the flow or write a simple answer, I don’t think UPSC is stupid to give so many ‘directives’ in all its question papers.  Understanding the demand of the question actually solves the 50 per cent of the problem. Directives help a great deal in this regard (along with content words and limiting words , of which we will talk shortly)

Usually the directive ‘analyse’ is given whenever that question demands  a detailed examination of various parts.

For example,

In the same question paper, UPSC gave the following question with the directive ‘analyse’:

Though Citizen’s charters have been formulated by many public service delivery organizations, there is no corresponding improvement in the level of citizens’ satisfaction and quality of services being provided. Analyse .(200 Words)

In the above question, you need to identify ‘content words’ to properly analyse the question in your answer. Citizen’s charters, public service delivery organizations (this is the most important one here – many organizations from Panchayat to PMO come here), citizen’s satisfaction and quality of services are the content words here. You have to examine these in-depth and establish their interrelationship in the answer.

If the directive was ‘Critically analyse’ in the above question, all you need to do is to be fair in your argument. Some may argue that Citizen’s Charters are just futile exercise and nothing else. Even though the question itself has a negative tone, you have to examine positive aspects and explain them well.

Critically is usually added to the directive when the topic is controversial or issues related to it clearly have both positives and negatives. You can go through previous year papers and check it yourself.

Content Words

In the first question (MDM), content words are: concept of MDM, its history, its twin objectives, its new mandates, its success and effect on states.

If you observe carefully, the limiting words are ‘Latest mandates’ – you should not talk lengthily about past mandates; in Two decades – you don’t have to write about its effect  from time immemorial’.

Once you identify these key words in a given question, your job becomes easier. You just have to fill the content as demanded by the question. Remember, relevance is most important in your answer. If you maintain relevance till the end while meeting the demand of the question at the same time, examiner will be impressed.

Wait, there is one more key word!

Context Words

In the second question (India’s role in Afghanistan) we saw that the directive word is followed by a specific context. In may questions we see such a context given such as ‘in the light of…..’ type questions.  Here, you don’t have to write anything extra regarding the context. You just have to maintain a boundary in your answer within the context.

Thus, these four key words/phrases actually help you understand the demand of the question better and make your job easy. That’s why you should first try to understand these words and use them when you do writing practice here or at home.

With more practice you will be able to clearly differentiate between different directives. Without going through these words you can still get decent marks. But to be in the top league your answers must be clear, logical, relevant and straight to the point. This is why few people get very good marks in General Studies papers. If you practice with these points in mind, slowly you will learn to see things with different perspective altogether – the perspective which UPSC expects from you.

In the next article, we shall discuss other directive words: Comment, Discuss and Elucidate.

References : (extremely useful for essay writing) (for definitions of Directive words)

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Editorials/Opinions Analysis For UPSC 25 February 2023

Home » Editorials/Opinions Analysis For UPSC 25 February 2023

Recent few events have highlighted the vulnerability of our fast expanding digital networks.

Relevance :

GS Paper 3: Internal Security

Dimensions of the Article:

What are the issues with Cyber-security in India?


Rising Cyber-attacks in the recent past:

Need for a comprehensive cyber security policy:

International Cooperation in Cybersecurity :

Way Forward:

India’s Security And Strategic Interests

India’s National Security Adviser (NSA) Ajit Doval visited the United States last month and held a meeting with his US counterpart.

GS II: International Relations

Striking a balance in its relations

About National Security Advisor:

Agreements between India and US :

Meeting between India and Russia:


While India, having to put up with the Chinese threat, has warmed up to the US, it has also taken pains to maintain its relationship with Russia despite the isolation the former is facing in the global community over the war in Ukraine.

The recent meetings points out India’s keen desire to safeguard its key interests, make advances in high-tech areas and, at the same time, be ready to hold on to its independent position and avoid landing in confrontationist stance, so far as the two rival powers are concerned.

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Stay updated with our latest analysis on Daily Current affairs from the Hindu, Indian Express and other leading newspapers along with our PIB and Editorial Summaries. Register now and be a part of the clan to not miss even a single update on getting one step closer to your dreams!

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Recently, the United States announced that it would rejoin the United Nations (UN) Human Rights Council that it left in 2018.

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New National Education Policy (NEP) 2020: Analysis

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From Current Affairs Notes for UPSC » Editorials & In-depths » This topic

The Union Cabinet approved a new national education policy recently after a big gap of 34 years . After long deliberations and two committees since 2014, the union cabinet has finalized a comprehensive policy that strives to direct the education system in India in the 21 st century. With an aim to make India a knowledge superpower, the policy proposes some fundamental changes within the education system.


Mindmap Learning Programme (MLP)


What is the importance of education in Indian traditions and the legal-constitutional framework?

What is the need for a new education policy?

What are the salient features of New Education Policy-2020?

School Education

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Higher Education

for higher education sector policy envisages following actions

Other changes

What is the significance of the new education policy?

What are the issues with the new education policy?

Way Forward

The New Education Policy-2020 represents aspirations to become a knowledge powerhouse of the world inculcating the best of the global educational experiments. The global education development agenda reflected in the Goal 4 (SDG4) of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by India in 2015 – seeks to “ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all” by 2030. The Education policy is a step in the right direction given it is implemented throughout the long period it targets.

Practice Question for Mains

Critically analyze the New Education Policy-2020 in the light of challenges to the education system in India. (250 words)


Mind map notes for UPSC

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Corporate Governance – A critical Analysis

Entrance Test 07 June 2018

In light of  Tata, Infosys, ICICI & PNB bank corporate governance episodes  lately, the debate around transparency, role of Independent Directors, promoters etc among others got wide attention to further enhance corporate governance in India.

What is Corporate Governance?

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Need for a corporate governance

Examples of failure of corporate governance in India

Harshad Mehta case: role of regulator

Satyam Scam: failure of auditing

ICICI bank: Conflict of Interest

PNB fraud: Internal Mechanism

Tata Case: Role of promoter

Infosys Case: Role of Independent Director

Corporate Governance in India

Post-Independence (Pre Liberalization) Governance : After Independence, governance practices were based on Gandhian principles of Trusteeship and the some of the direction received from the Indian principles of constitutions.Many corporates like JRD TATA has also imbibed these principles and established such a big empire of TATA group.

Post Liberalization Era:

Liberalization leads to wide ranging changes in both law and regulations. After the liberalization the establishment of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (1992) was very important development in the field of corporate governance and protection of the minority investors’ rights.

Post satyam scam (2007): Satyam scam is watershed moment for Indian Corporate governance. Post satyam there is a series of regulations brought up in terms of Auditors, Directors, Independent Directors, promoters as well as regulators to avoid any further debacle like Satyam.

Legislation to improve corporate governance

The frame work of Indian corporate governance is consist of various legislation and regulations like

Regulatory framework on corporate governance

Important Committees

Key Recommendations of Uday Kotak Panel:

Shareholder Activism 

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Daily Current Affairs Quiz

UPSC Prelims 2020 – Detailed Analysis, Explanation, Cut-Off, Answer Key for Series A, B, C, D of General Studies Paper I

Important Updates , UPSC Prelims Answer Key , UPSC Prelims Question Paper

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Dear Friends,

Since Sunday evening, we have been getting continuous calls and messages from anxious students as it is difficult for them to truly understand the nature of the question paper.

In the annals of UPSC history, 4th October, 2020 would go down as one of the weirdest days. No less than 2018 UPSC Prelims which created a similar furore!

For one, most of you were left at the mercy of dice for more than 20 questions.

These are tough days for UPSC aspirants. With COVID-19 at one end of the tunnel and unpredictably at the other, aspirants are finding it difficult to focus on immediate goals. After taking the prelims examination in the most taxing circumstances, they are unsettled by the darkness of uncertainty around the score that would sail them through to the next stage. While even an innocuous sneeze can give nightmares to aspirants about their health, UPSC has ensured that the candidates have bigger concerns to worry about. No wonder, we are flooded with queries and panic emails from our students.

It is perfectly understandable but at the same time, we don’t completely buy the arguments that UPSC has been erratic or unreasonable in its approach. After all, it is an independent Constitutional body and is free to use any means to eliminate maximum aspirants in the very first stage of CSE. We can have passionate discussions about it and even cry for that matter but that would hardly help!

This year’s prelims paper has started a tough debate as to what UPSC is expecting from the students . Many candidates are panicking as it is difficult for them to understand and comprehend how their paper went.

This was a kind of paper where it was more important for a candidate to judge which question to leave rather than which one to attempt . Question paper was no doubt on the difficult side but you must understand that you have to clear the cut off rather than score 150 in the paper. This year, the cut-off will be definitely lower than the previous year’s cut-off .

In order to explain what could have been the correct approach to the questions, thought process, elimination method and likely cut-off and lessons learnt from UPSC Prelims 2020, we have made a VIDEO for you.

You can watch the video and refer to the detailed explanations with authentic sources posted below.

If this helps in making a difference in your preparation, we are more than happy.

To those who will not be able to make this year we advice what our Teachers adviced-

‘Do not take short cuts, for they cut you short’

We wish all the best to all of you.

Important Timelines:

0:00 – Essence & Analysis of the Paper; 02:25 – Lessons Learnt from UPSC Prelims 2020; 07:06 – Distribution of Questions in Polity, Geography, History, Economics, Science & Tech, Environment, Current Affairs; 07:54 – Level of Difficulty, 08:17 – Polity Questions; 22: 39 – Science & Technology; 38:15 – Environment; 54:37 – Geography & Agriculture; 01:05:22 –  Economics & Agriculture; 01:31:29 – History (Ancient, Medieval (Art & Culture), Modern); 01:44:20 – Current Affairs; 01:48:54  – Expected Cut-Off

General Studies Paper 1

Detailed explanation and sources/reference.

Please note that we have not put the Question numbers so that students with any series (A,B,C,D) can refer to the detailed Solution and Explantation.


Q.) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells? 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Solution (c)


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Q.) With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’?

ILP Value Add Notes-Ancient India

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Q.) Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because

Solution (d)

REFERENCE: Modern History ILP Value Add Notes

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Q.) With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?

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Q.) In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for

REFERENCE: Prelims Exclusive Programme (PEP)-Handout: Value Add Notes 

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Q.) Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 

Solution (b)

Statement (a): Rajya Sabha enjoys special powers in the matter of creating new All India Services. If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more All India Services common to the union and the states, parliament becomes empowered to create by law such services.

Statement (b): Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha in matters like the impeachment of the President, removal of the vice-president, constitutional amendments, and removal of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Statement (c): Rajya Sabha has unequal powers with regard to removal of government. The Council of Ministers is responsible only to Lok Sabha and not responsible to the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, a no-confidence motion cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Statement (d) : Rajya Sabha doesn’t have power to make cut motions, it can only make suggestions

Source:  Daily Prelims Test

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Q.) Siachen Glacier is situated to the

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Q.) If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

Solution (a)

Plant species placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 are prohibited to be cultivated, but they can be cultivated after acquiring a valid licence.

Statement 2 is an extreme statement ‘ under any circumstances’. Hence it is incorrect.

PEP (Prelims Exclusive Program) Environment Handout

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Q.) Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare state?

Directive Principles of State Policy aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state

ILP 2020 Polity VAN

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Q.) In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

Public policy formulation and policy implementation are two distinct but closely interrelated functions of the government. Public policy is laid down by the legislature or the political authorities, who are vested with the power of giving policy the requisite legal authority i.e. legitimacy. The policy implementation aspect is supposed to be in the domain of the executive, i.e., the bureaucracy or the administrative arm of the government (

TLP Synopsis :

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Q.) With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below

DPSP are guidelines/principles given to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. These principles were deemed fundamental in the governance of the country since it epitomized the hopes and aspirations of the Indian people and hence they influence the law making of state.

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Q.) Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session

Statement 2 is incorrect: Constitution does not provide for three sessions of the Parliament. It is by convention ; Parliament meets for three sessions in a year  

Statement 3 is correct: There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year -in fact, the number of days that Parliament meets has reduced over the years. During the first two decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more than 120 days a year. This has come down to approximately 70 days in the last decade. 

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Q.) Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?


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Q.) In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

Article 50 which comes under Part IV of Indian Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy) clearly mentions about separation of judiciary from the executive

ILP Value Add Notes- Polity


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Q.) Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

The Macro-Economic Framework Statement, presented to Parliament as per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.The Framework Statement contains assessment regarding the GDP growth rate, fiscal balance of the Central Government and the external sector balance of the economy.

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Q.) With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement:

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Remark: The fourth statement is doubtful, but even by eliminating it, we are not getting any option as 1, 2 and 3. All the other statements are correct. 

CNTs have been successfully applied in pharmacy and medicine due to their high surface area that is capable of adsorbing or conjugating with a wide variety of therapeutic and diagnostic agents (drugs, genes, vaccines, antibodies, biosensors, etc.).

Then other applications of CNTs have been extensively performed not only for drug and gene therapies but also for tissue regeneration, biosensor diagnosis, enantiomer separation of chiral drugs, extraction and analysis of drugs and pollutants.

During recent years carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have been attracted by many researchers as a drug delivery carrier.

Multiple types of microbes including bacteria and fungi have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs), graphene (GRA), and their derivatives. 


Q.) Consider the following activities: 

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones? 

All the statements are correct. 

Drones have become a critical tool for professionals working in a large variety of different sectors such as public safety, search and rescue, infrastructure inspection, surveying and mapping, agriculture, wildlife conservation and many more.

The agriculture sprayer drones protect farmers from poisoning and heat stroke, while spraying liquid pesticides, fertilizers and herbicides on agricultural land.

Scientists recently conducted a study using drones to make aerial images of a volcano in Guatemala.

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Statement 1-

Statement 2-

Statement 3-

Q.) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to 

e-LISA is a plan of setting into space three spacecraft, a mother and two daughter spacecraft, which will fly in a triangular formation, trailing the earth in its orbit around the sun at a distance of over 50 million km.

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Q.) Consider the following statements: 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

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Q.) What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? 

Hence, PCV Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines has fever, loss of appetite, fussiness and other side effects.

Q.) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a technology for authenticating users and devices in the digital world. The basic idea is to have one or more trusted parties digitally sign documents certifying that a particular cryptographic key belongs to a particular user or device. 

In our PEP Science Handout, we had covered ‘Public Key Cryptography’ in relation to Digital Signature. This can easily help out in arriving at the correct answer.

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Q.) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? 

Benzene is formed from both natural processes and human activities.

Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke.

Benzene is one of the primary compounds of the Carbon Chain- (Organic Chemistry)

All the options given are reasons for exposure to benzene pollution. Hence all are correct.

Q.) If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India? 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Depending on short-term foreign borrowings, Opening up more foreign banks and maintaining full capital account convertibility will lead to more economic interdependency with the global economy. So, any global financial crisis will impact India.

Q.) If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be 

If a person withdraws 1,00,000 in cash from his/her Demand Deposit Account at your bank Aggregate money supply in the economy will be unchanged 

M3 consists of both cash held by public and Demand Deposit. The money that has been withdrawn from Demand Deposit is just added to cash (both are components of M3), so aggregate money supply will not have any immediate effect.

Q.) In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around:

In 1885, after 12 years of marriage, Dadaji Bhikaji (married Rakhmabi) sought “ restitution of conjugal rights ”. 

Rukhmabai also made her mark in history due to the legal case she was involved in, which contributed to the enactment of the Age of Consent Act, 1891.

Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.) Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of

This is a straight forward question. The main reason behind decline in Indigo cultivation in India is its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions (like synthetic indigo)

Q.) With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:

Panini and Pushyamitra Shunga are born and lived in different Centuries. Same is the case with Amarasimha and Harshavardhana. Hence Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect. Once Statement 2 is eliminated you can arrive at the correct answer.

Kalidasa was a Court Poet of Chandra Gupta-II. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

ILP Value Add Notes

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Q.) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

Solution (d) or (b)

Artificial Intelligence has wide varieties of applications in various fields. Statement 1,3 and 4 are applications of AI and are already in use from long time.

However there is a slight confusion regarding Statements 2 and 5. 

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Q.) With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?

Due to the propagation distance of the light emitting diodes (LEDs), VLC is a short-range communication technology. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. Once statement 2 is eliminated answer is option c.

Q.) With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following statements:,_Blockchain_and_Regulations

Q.) One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

Both Gandhi and Marx were anarchists opposed to political authority of the state over the individual. Both of them, therefore, conceived of an idea – a stateless society free from exploitation of any kind. Gandhi’s ideal of Ramrajya in a society, where each individual living in it, is a Satyagrahi, following the dictates of truth, and governed by his own moral will.

Q.) The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

In Beruberi’s case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution and therefore it could never be regarded as a source of any substantive powers

But in Kesavananda Bharati’s case, the Supreme Court rejected the above view and held that 

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Q.) “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes—without a service fee or economic reform conditions

ILP VAN-Economy

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Solution (a) or (d)

Statement 2 is incorrect : A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release (not permanently disqualified)

Regarding Statement-1 there is some confusion. So, as of now we are posting the answer as a or d for now.

60 day Prelims Initiative

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Q.) A parliamentary system of government is one in which?

Daily Current Affairs ( )

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Source:   — Page 12

Statement 1 is incorrect: Basic Structure doctrine evolved in Kesavanada Bharti case of 1973 and the Constitution doesn’t define it.

Statement 2 is correct : Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review has been described. The Union or the States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void


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TLP: ( )

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Q.)Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Supreme Court read down Section 2(d) of the Aadhaar Act to refrain government authorities to store metadata of transactions. Accordingly, Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months. The Aadhaar Act had a provision to store allowed storage of such data for a period of five years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Aadhaar not mandatory to buy insurance policy but can be used for KYC if given voluntarily. This n the backdrop of a Supreme Court judgment of September, 2018, that held as unconstitutional making Aadhaar and PAN/Form 60 mandatory for availing financial services, including insurance.

Statement 4 is correct : The Supreme Court cleared mandatory Aadhaar enrolment of recipients of government welfare benefits. It, however, defined welfare schemes as only those funded directly from the “consolidated fund of India”, the main corpus of all revenues received by the government.

Q. ) With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme(MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

Statement 3 is incorrect: An important aspect of the MPLAD Scheme is that funds released under this scheme are non-lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year .

TLP Connect – TEST 30

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Q.) A constitutional government by definition is a

Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity—that effectively controls (limits) the exercise of political power . The essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state.

ILP 2020 VAN

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Q.)Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

Preamble and DPSP obviously reflect the equality principle of UDHR.

Additionally, Fundamental Duties also reflect the UDHR principles

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Q.)In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

Source :

Statement 3 is wrong: The Legal Services Authority does not mention about Other Backward Classes (OBC) while providing free legal services. It provides free services to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribe , Women and Children.

Statement 4 is wrong: The provision of free legal services to Senior Citizens is dependent on the rules framed by the respective state governments who can prescribe income limits. Therefore, not all senior citizens are eligible for free legal services.

Since both statement 3 and 4 are wrong, by the method of elimination, we can arrive at option A

Q.) Consider the following pairs:

Internationalagreement/set-up                ::                       Subject

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Hague Convention deals with Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to another

Under2 Coalition is a coalition of subnational governments that aims to achieve greenhouse gases emissions mitigation

REFERENCE: Babapedia

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Alma-Ata Declaration: Daily Current Affairs-

Hague Convention: Daily Current Affairs-

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Q.) With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Statement 1 – Aurang is a Persian term for a warehouse – a place where goods are collected before being sold. The word also refers to a workshop for finished goods.

Statement 2 – The banian acted as an agent for individual EIC managers, and performed a range of functions including, bookkeeping, interpreting, and brokerage, as well as managing his household and personal business activities.

Statement 3 – Thalkari or Mirasdar paid land revenue, but were not officials and formed a large part of the village community, and were hereditary owners of the land. Mirasdar is an Arabic word (Miras=Inherit) for Thalkari.

Q.) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

Statement 1is incorrect – Sthaviravadins is associated with Theravada. It is an early school of Buddhism.

Statement 2 is correct – The Mahāsaṅghikas believed in a plurality of buddhas who are supramundane (lokottara) and held that what passed for Gautama Buddha in his earthly existence was only an apparition. The school was first located in the area of Vaiśālī and spread also to southern India, with centres at Amarāvatī and Nāgārjunakoṇḍa. Its texts were written in Prākrit. It further divided into several subsects, of which the best known was the Lokottaravāda (so called because of its views on lokottara).

Statement 3 is correct – Mahāsaṅghika, (from Sanskrit mahāsaṅgha, “great order of monks”), early Buddhist school in India that, in its views of the nature of the Buddha, was a precursor of the Mahāyāna tradition. ( )

REFERENCE:Also covered in Current Affairs Sessions and ILP VAN

Q.) Which of the following statements correctly explain the impact of Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?

Cheap and machine-made imports flooded Indian Market and Indian products found it difficult to penetrate the Indian market. This Industrial revolution ruined the Indian Handicrafts.

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Q.) Consider the following events in the history of India:

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?

Q.) Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?

Hundis are an informal mode of instrument or bill of exchange; thus it has no place in the legal system and the Negotiable Instruments Act does not regulate or cover them. They are a bill of exchange and were used in a manner in which cheques are used today in common parlance.

Q.)With reference to the book “Desher Katha” written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:

Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (1869-1912) a close associate of Sri Aurobindo.  A Marathi Brahmin who had settled in Bengal, Sakharam was born in Deoghar. He studied in the Deoghar School and later became a teacher there. He was Barin’s teacher of History. “One of the ablest men in these revolutionary groups,” Sri Aurobindo reminds us, “[he] was an able writer in Bengali (his family had been long domiciled in Bengal)…. He published a book entitled Desher Katha describing in exhaustive detail the British commercial and industrial exploitation of India. This book had an immense repercussion in Bengal, captured the mind of young Bengal and assisted more than anything else in the preparation of the Swadeshi movement.” Published first in June 1904, Desher Katha sold ten thousand copies in four editions within the year. The fifth edition came out in 1905. The government of Bengal banned the book in 1910 and confiscated all the copies. Deuskar was the first to bring in the name of Swaraj, and Sri Aurobindo was the first to endow it with its English equivalent, ‘Independence.’ The Nationalists adopted this word, and Swaraj became the chief item of the fourfold Nationalist programme.

The colonial state proscribed the text in 1910, but by then it had sold over 15,000 copies, informed swadeshi street plays and folk songs, and had assumed the status of mandatory reading for an entire generation of swadeshi activists.

There is a slight confusion with Statement 3.

Q.)The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?

Proposed conditions:

ILP 2020 Modern India VAN

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Q.) The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by

Gopal Baba Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience.

He also wrote articles for Marathi-language newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu, as well as composing couplets in Marathi that were intended to inspire the people.

Q.) With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote

The words kulyavapa, dronavapa and adhavapa indicate the area of land that was required to sow seed grains of the weight respectively of one kulya, drona and adhaka.

Q.) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription?

“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”

Using common sense, this question can be answered. In whole of Ancient History that you must have read, inscriptions related to ASHOKA should have dominated your coverage.

Through Dhamma, Ashoka wanted to establish a peaceful and coherent society in which every sect should respect and honour the other sect.

If you knew this Dhamma of Ashoka, can easily guess the answer.

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Q.)What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?

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Q.) Consider the following minerals:

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

Bentonite is a minor mineral.

Q.)With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

OMT, which is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less. The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50–100 metres. During January–March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres.

Scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) find that ocean mean temperature (OMT) that has better ability to predict this than the sea surface temperature. Compared with SST which has 60% success rate of predicting the Indian summer monsoon, OMT has 80% success rate.

Q.) With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:

Statement 1 is incorrect – The prices of fertilizers are administered through MRP, subsidies by the government. It is not market driven in India.

Statement 2 is correct – Natural gas is the primary raw material used to produce ammonia. Urea is made from ammonia and carbon dioxide. The ammonia and carbon dioxide are. fed into the reactor at high pressure and temperature, and the urea is formed in a two step.

Statement 3 is correct – Sulfur is a by-product of processing natural gas and refining high-sulfur crude oils. Some fertilizers, such as two-component fertilizers Monoammonium Phosphate (MAP) and Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), offer farmers an effective means of delivering both nitrogen and phosphorus to soils.  Sulfuric acid is used as a key first step in the production of both MAP and DAP, after which it is mixed with phosphate rock to produce phosphoric acid.

Q.) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below;

Desert National Park, Rajasthan, is situated in the Indian state of Rajasthan near the towns of Jaisalmer and Barmer.

The endangered great Indian bustard is a magnificent bird found in relatively fair numbers.

People and animals can co-exist in the Buffer Zone of the National Park so Statement 2 is wrong.

REFERENCE:Also covered in Current Affairs Sessions

Prelims Exclusive Programme ( PEP) Environment – Session 3

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Q.)With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Famous Place               ::               Present State

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Bhilsa – Madhya Pradesh

Dwarasamudra – Karnataka

Girinagar – Gujarat

Shaneshwara – Haryana

ILP 2020 Ancient and Medieval India VAN

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Statement 2 is correct – Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country.

Statement 3 is correct – India has the world’s largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system.

PEP ( Prelims Exclusive Programme) – Environment Handout

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Statement 1 is incorrect – Jet Streams flow in both the hemispheres.

Statement 2 is correct – The eye is a region of mostly calm weather at the center of strong tropical cyclones. It is not associated with temperate cyclones.

Statement 3 is incorrect – Eye is an area of low pressure and high temperature.

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Q.)Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam has the largest Core Area –

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Q.)With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as

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Q.) What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

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Q.) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?

PEP ( Prelims Exclusive Programme) Environment Handout

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Babapedia –

Q.) Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

Social Cost of Carbon’ measures long-term damage done by a tonne of COշ emissions in a given year in terms of monetary value.

Q.) With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following sentences:

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Statement 2 is incorrect: Green-gram alone accounts for nearly 8% of pulse production.

Statement 3 is incorrect . In the last three decades, the production of Kharif Pulses and Rabi Pulses do not give us any specific trend.

Q.) “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is the crop?

Cotton is a plant that needs a long frost-free period, a lot of heat and plenty of sunshine. It prefers warm and humid climate.

It requires 50-100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth.

A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the cotton.

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Q.)With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:

Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and submersible pumps,

Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and the ones with piston.,alternate%20current%20(AC)%20pumps .

Q.) With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:

Statement 2 is incorrect: When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with setts with many buds as compared to single-budded setts.

Statement 3 is incorrect: If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, large setts have better survival as compared to single-budded setts.

Q.) In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?

All the practices given above are eco-friendly.

Irrigation water productivity can be increased using Tensiometer.

Q.) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?

Fixing Minimum Support Price for agriculture produce of all crops, Free electricity supply of farmers, Waiver of agriculture loans by the banking system do not qualify to be public investment, rather they come under the category of subsidies.

Q.) What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?

The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the better is its ability to service its debt.

Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.)Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?

All the above mentioned factors affect the price of Rice in India.

The government typically buys more than a third of the country’s rice output at a fixed price, which also has a direct impact on prices paid by traders. This in turn increases the overall price of rice.

The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has no consistent trend in the last decade.

Hence Statement 1 is incorrect

There are significant value chain linkages between India and Bangladesh, particularly in the textile and apparel sector. India specializes in the upstream segment, supplying such intermediate inputs as silk, cotton, yarn, and fabrics to Bangladesh. Bangladesh specializes in the downstream final apparel segment, exporting worldwide as well as to India.

Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia.

Q.) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?

critical analysis upsc,the%20European%20Union%20(EU) .


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Q.) Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?

This question can be easily solved by eliminating statement 5. Question is asking about short-term credit support, so it could not include Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility

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Q.)Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given- above is/are correct?

The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) (around 46%) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI) (around 26%)

Wholesale Price Index, or WPI, measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses. WPI is unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which tracks the prices of goods and services purchased by consumers.

RBI adopted CPI as the key measure of Inflation. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

REFERENCE: Covered in Economy VAN also.

Q.) Consider the following pairs

            River         ::           Flows into

            River            ::          Flows into

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Statement-1 and Statement-2

The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). ( Market prices keep varying)

Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops. In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra, respectively. The list of crops are as follows.

Q.)With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

A certificate of deposit (CD) is a product offered by banks and credit unions that provides an interest rate premium in exchange for the customer agreeing to leave a lump-sum deposit untouched for a predetermined period of time.

Hence Statement 2 is incorrect

A zero-coupon bond is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.

Hence Statement 4 is incorrect

Also covered in Economy VAN

Q.)With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristics?

Foreign direct investment or FDI is when a business receives investment from a foreign investor (individual or company). This foreign investor is based outside the country where the business is taking place.

Foreign direct investments are characterized by a notion of ‘lasting interest’. Having a lasting interest in the business where the investment is being done is a significant characteristic of FDI. Foreign direct investments are guided by the notion of ‘controlling ownership’.

ILP Value Add Note- Economy

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Q.) With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

India had a total export of 322,291,568.43 in thousands of US$ and total imports of 617,945,603.08 in thousands of US$ leading to a negative trade balance of -295,654,034.65 in thousands of US$ The Effectively Applied Tariff Weighted Average (customs duty) for India is 4.88% and the Most Favored Nation (MFN) Weighted Average tariff is 6%.The trade growth is 0.87% compared to a world growth of 3.50%. GDP of India is 2,718,732,231,300 in current US$. India services export is 204,955,578,850 in BoP, current US$ and services import is 124,181,614,510 in Bop, current US$.India exports of goods and services as percentage of GDP is 19.74% and imports of goods and services as percentage of GDP is 23.64%.,percentage%20of%20GDP%20is%2023.64%25 .

Q.)The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil is a specific grade of crude oil and one of the main three benchmarks in oil pricing, along with Brent and Dubai Crude.

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Test Series Question

Q.) The Indian basket of Crude Oil represents a derived basket comprising of? 

Select the correct code:

Q.)In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?

Non-financial debt consists of credit instruments issued by governmental entities, households and businesses that are not included in the financial sector.

Debts are contractual obligations to repay monetary loans, often with related interest expense. Non-financial debt includes industrial or commercial loans, Treasury bills and credit card balances. They share most of the same characteristics with financial debt, except the issuers are non-financial. They have maturities ranging from one day to perpetuity, and can be used as loans to finance a company’s growth. Companies can also use more sophisticated debt instruments for hedging purposes.

Q.)In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?

India will decide on the number of new reactors to be placed under IAEA safeguards only after assessing if these will be fuelled by uranium procured from abroad.

For those procured form abroad, will come under IAEA safeguards and those using domestic will be outside its preview.

Babapedia –

Q.) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

This Agreement, negotiated during the Uruguay Round, applies only to measures that affect trade in goods. Recognizing that certain investment measures can have trade-restrictive and distorting effects, it states that no Member shall apply a measure that is prohibited by the provisions of GATT Article III (national treatment) or Article XI (quantitative restrictions).

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Q.)If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

When expansionist monetary policy has to be enforced, in simple terms it means money flow in the market should be increased, for that RBI takes several Qualitative and quantitative measures such as decreasing Repo Rate, SLR etc.

Q.)With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Workers productivity increase in both Urban and Rural areas but the rate of increase was high in Urban compared to Rural areas.

Statement 2: The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce increased for male but reduced for females.

Statement 3: In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased.

Statement 4: Growth rate was positive but the rate of growth got increased after 1992 liberalization.

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Statement 1: District Central Co-operative Banks provides funds to credit societies and not to individuals directly, hence the first statement is incorrect.

Q.) In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?

Solution (b) or (d)

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Q. ) With reference to cultural history of India consider the following pairs:

ILP Value Add Notes-Ancient India: All three were covered in VAN- Direct Hit

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Q.) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Statement 1: Elephant families have a matriarchal head, meaning that an older, experienced lady elephant leads the herd. A family usually consist of a mother, her sisters, daughters their babies (calves). Occasionally, non-related elephants join to form families. Female family units range from three to twenty five elephants.

Statement 2: The Gestation period of African elephant is 22 months and for Asian elephants it is between 18-22 months.

Statement 3: Elephants can reproduce till the age of 45-60 years.

Statement 4: Karnataka has the highest Elephant population in India.

Highest elephant in Karnataka.

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Q.) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin?

Papikonda comes in Godavery Basin rest all comes under Cauvery Basin.

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Q.)With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White- throated redstart are

Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White- throated redstart are birds found in India.

REFERENCE:Babapedia and also covered in Current Affairs Sessions

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Q.) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasinga) that thrives well in hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

The hard ground swamp deer, popularly known as Barasingha in India, which was once close to extinction in Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh, has been saved through a successful breeding program and conservation practices. After five decades of dedicated and efficient conservation work, the population of swamp deer in Kanha National Park is 800.


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Q.)Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

The use of steel slag as an aggregate is considered a standard practice in many jurisdictions, with applications that include its use in granular base, embankments, engineered fill, highway shoulders, and hot mix asphalt pavement.

Q.) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

Himalayan Musk deer is found in the areas between Ladakh to Sikkim i.e. Askot wildlife Sanctuary and Gangotri National Park.

60 Days Plan – Q.81 ( )

Also covered in Current Affairs Sessions

Q.)In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

In rural road construction, copper slag, cold mix asphalt technology and Geotextiles are used to ensure environment sustainability.

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Statement 1: Coal ash contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium and arsenic. Without proper management, these contaminants can pollute waterways, ground water, drinking water, and the air.

Statement 2: Coal-fired power plants release large amount of smoke in air which contains compounds of sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.

Statement 3: India’s domestic coal reserves have high ash content—up to 40 to 45 percent.,drinking%20water%2C%20and%20the%20air .

Q.) What is the use of biochar in farming?

Uses of Biochar:

For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel –

Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

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UPSC Prelims Paper 2019 Analysis

The UPSC Prelims is the first step in getting closer to your IAS dreams. The 2019 IAS exam process commenced with the civil services preliminary exam, which was held on 2nd June. The results of the same were out on 12th July 2019. In this article, you can get a brief analysis of the 2019 prelims papers (GS I), and understand the trend the UPSC has been following in setting up the question paper each year.

Candidates can also review the UPSC 2020 Prelims Analysis at the linked article and get details about the subject-wise weightage.

UPSC Exam Analysis 2019 – Subject-wise Breakup

Take a look at the following table and graph, which gives the subject-wise breakup of the questions asked in this year’s UPSC Prelims .

UPSC Exam Analysis 2019-1

As you can see from the graph, current affairs were the area from where the maximum number of questions were asked. Thus, the old adage that newspapers are the key to cracking the IAS exam has been proved true yet again.

BYJU’S presents the most important news and views from the newspapers in a classified and student-friendly manner in the Daily Comprehensive News Analysis (CNA) , to aid your IAS preparation.

Before we proceed towards a detailed analysis of the 2019 prelims paper, let us go through the UPSC syllabus and pattern for Prelims (GS 1).

UPSC Prelims Pattern

The following table will make it more clear:

You can get more information on the CSAT here .

UPSC Prelims Syllabus

General Studies Paper I

UPSC Prelims Analysis – Detailed Analysis

In this section, we shall discuss the nature of questions asked, toughness levels and trends that were seen in the 2019 Prelims GS I question paper divided into subjects.

History Questions

UPSC Prelims Analysis - Detailed Analysis

Watch detailed analysis of the 2019 history questions by our in-house expert below:

Polity Questions

International Relations Questions

Watch a detailed analysis of the 2019 International Relations questions by our in-house expert below:

Economy Questions

Watch a detailed analysis of the 2019 Economy questions by our in-house expert below:

Science & Technology Questions

Watch a detailed analysis of the 2019 Science & Technology questions by our in-house expert below:

Geography & Environment Questions

Watch a detailed analysis of the 2019 Environment & Ecology questions by our in-house expert below:

You can check the answer key for prelims 2019 (GS I + CSAT) from here .

UPSC Prelims Trend Analysis

Trend analysis refers to the pattern in the previous years’ UPSC question papers. The following link will give the number of questions asked from each subject over the years 2011 through 2019.

UPSC Prelims Subject-Wise Weightage

UPSC Prelims Results

The prelims result was out on 12th July 2019. Candidates can check the CSE Prelims 2019 result in the linked article.

For more on how to select the optional, click here .

Related Links:

Frequently Asked Questions UPSC Prelims & Mains

What is the cut off for the upsc prelims 2019.

Our experts predicted the cut-off marks to be in the range 95 – 100 for the general category. Get the official UPSC Cut off marks here . It varies yearly, depending on the complexity of the paper and competition level.

How do I check my UPSC Prelims results?

You can check the UPSC Prelims results by logging onto the official website of the UPSC and following the instructions therein. Alternatively, you can check your results on this website as well, which we update on a regular basis.

How do I apply for the UPSC Mains 2022 if I qualify?

You can apply for the mains 2022 only on the UPSC’s official website. Check our website for regular updates on how to apply, last date to apply, etc.

When will the UPSC Mains exam be conducted?

The UPSC Mains 2019 exam took place from 20th September 2019 onward. CSE Mains 2021 will take place from 7th January 2022, onwards.

How to choose an optional subject for IAS Mains?

Keep in mind the following factors while selecting an optional for the IAS mains:

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  5. Assignment 4_Critical Analysis.doc

    critical analysis upsc

  6. UPSC Prelims Paper Analysis 2019

    critical analysis upsc


  1. Exclusive Initiative for UPSC Aspirants- EPW

  2. IAS interview || critical situation || upsc PCS IQ

  3. Black Day For India 🔥 || motivation song || motivational video || #motivation #shorts #youtubeshorts

  4. Comprehensive Strategy to Crack UPSC CSE

  5. UPSC CSE 2021 Detailed Strategy

  6. Economy Current Affairs for UPSC


  1. Critical Thinking

    Critical Thinking is an important trait that is expected from candidates who wants to don the role of Civil Servants. The UPSC exam is a test of not only knowledge and facts, but it is also a gauge of your ability to think about, analyze and solve problems faced by society. This article helps one develop the skills of critical thinking.

  2. Problems with Democracy

    Enrol to StudyIQ's Flagship UPSC IAS (Pre + Mains) LIVE Foundation Batch 9. Admissions closing on 10 DEC'22 | Enrol now - time-te...

  3. Difference between Directives in UPSC IAS Questions

    In the same question paper, UPSC gave the following question with the directive 'analyse': Though Citizen's charters have been formulated by many public service delivery organizations, there is no corresponding improvement in the level of citizens' satisfaction and quality of services being provided. Analyse. (200 Words)

  4. Indra Sawhney Case:Critical Analysis of the Case for UPSC Exam

    This case analysis provides a clear picture of how reservation works in India. In this article, we will understand the critical analysis of the Indra Sawhney Case. All these dimensions are important for competitive examinations like IAS,IPS,IFS etc. Considering this, the Testbook provides the best quality notes for UPSC Exams.

  5. China's Big Plan to Control World Economy

    UPSC IAS (Pre + Mains) LIVE Foundation 2024 Batch 2|Batch Starting on 20th January 2023 | Batch Timing 8:00 AM Hurry Enrol Now :

  6. Water Pollution in India: Critical Analysis

    A number of factors like surface turbulence, photosynthetic activity, O2 consumption by organisms, and decomposition of organic matter are the factors that determine the amount of DO present in water. The higher amounts of waste increase the rates of decomposition and O2 consumption thereby decreases the DO content of water.

  7. Monsoon: Critical Analysis of Monsoon in India for UPSC

    Monsoon: Critical Analysis of Monsoon in India for UPSC. Monsoons are distinguished by abundant seasonal rainfall as well as consistent seasonal winds that switch direction with startling regularity. The name "monsoon" derives from the Arabic word "mausim," which means "season.". For centuries, sailors used this term to describe a ...

  8. NATGRID: Critical Analysis

    NATGRID: Critical Analysis UPSC Mentorship Current Affairs UPSC Courses Prelims Mains & Interview UPSC Study Material Login NATGRID: Critical Analysis 13 September, 2021 15 min read Relevance: Download PDF Tags: Cyber Security Internal Security GS Paper 3 What is NATGRID? NATGRID is an ambitious counter terrorism programme.


    Poshan Abhiyaan is thus envisioned to be a "Jan Andolan" and a "Janbhagidaari" meaning "People's Movement". Key principles of Jan Andolan: They tap into people's inherent goals and ensure motivation. Jan Andolan will aim to create a sense of aspiration, a shared identity, and closing the "say-do" gap.

  10. 25 Feb 2023: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

    Get the latest news analysis for the UPSC exam: Menstrual Leave Policy in India; Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP); Cyberattacks are rising, but there is an ideal patch; Breathing the toxic air of Chandrapur ... All the critical infrastructure of the country like banking and power systems have become highly vulnerable to such attacks from ...

  11. Aspirational District Programme

    About: It was launched in 2018 which aims to transform districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas. Aspirational Districts are those districts in India, that are affected by poor socio-economic indicators. Broad Contours of the Programme: Convergence (of Central & State Schemes)

  12. Editorials/Opinions Analysis For UPSC 25 February 2023

    Cyber capabilities like hacking and GPS jamming has played a pivotal role in the ongoing conflict in Ukraine. The electronic systems in warheads, radars and communication devices are rendered ineffective by such techniques. Data show that over 75% of Indian organisations have faced such attacks, with each breach costing an average of ₹ 35 ...

  13. UN Human Rights Council

    The Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the world. Formation: The Council was created by the United Nations General Assembly in 2006. It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights.

  14. New National Education Policy (NEP) 2020: Analysis

    To achieve this goal, there is a proposal to set up a National Mission on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) on priority. Accordingly, all State/UT governments will immediately prepare an implementation plan for attaining universal foundational literacy by 2025

  15. What is Corporate Governance? ForumIAS Blog

    Post-Independence (Pre Liberalization) Governance: After Independence, governance practices were based on Gandhian principles of Trusteeship and the some of the direction received from the Indian principles of constitutions.Many corporates like JRD TATA has also imbibed these principles and established such a big empire of TATA group.

  16. UPSC Prelims 2020

    Important Timelines: 0:00 - Essence & Analysis of the Paper; 02:25 - Lessons Learnt from UPSC Prelims 2020; 07:06 - Distribution of Questions in Polity, Geography, History, Economics, Science & Tech, Environment, Current Affairs; 07:54 - Level of Difficulty, 08:17 - Polity Questions; 22: 39 - Science & Technology; 38:15 - Environment; 54:37 - Geography & Agriculture; 01:05:22 ...

  17. UPSC Prelims Paper Analysis 2019

    UPSC Exam Analysis 2019 - Subject-wise Breakup. Take a look at the following table and graph, which gives the subject-wise breakup of the questions asked in this year's UPSC Prelims. As you can see from the graph, current affairs were the area from where the maximum number of questions were asked. Thus, the old adage that newspapers are the ...